Despite recent increases in sales and cash flow....

[violetwind]

Despite recent increases in sales and cash flow that have propelled automobile companies' common stocks to new highs, several industry analysts expect automakers, in order to conserve cash, to set cash more conservatively than they were.

A) to set dividends more conservatively than they were
B) to set dividends more conservatively than they have been
C) to be more conservative than they have been in setting dividends
D) that they will be more conservative than they were in setting dividends
E) that they will be more conservative than they have been to set dividends

OA: I chose B, but the OA is C

==========
My logic was as follows. Please explain my errors:
D) that they will be more conservative than they were in setting dividends
Same verb error from A is repeated. And I think the idiom is "expect to <verb>" and not "expect that"?
E) that they will be more conservative than they have been to set dividends
Same idiom error from D about "expect" is repeated

Hi,Ron,

I don't think D or E have the "wrong comparison" issue, as the ommited parts are both "conservative" in D and E.

Am I wrong? and are there any other problems in D and E?

Thanks in advance!

[parthatayi]

Despite recent increases in sales and cash flow that have propelled automobile companies' common stocks to new highs, several industry analysts expect automakers, in order to conserve cash, to set cash more conservatively than they were.

A) to set dividends more conservatively than they were
B) to set dividends more conservatively than they have been
C) to be more conservative than they have been in setting dividends
D) that they will be more conservative than they were in setting dividends
E) that they will be more conservative than they have been to set dividends

OA: I chose B, but the OA is C

==========
My logic was as follows. Please explain my errors:
D) that they will be more conservative than they were in setting dividends
Same verb error from A is repeated. And I think the idiom is "expect to <verb>" and not "expect that"?
E) that they will be more conservative than they have been to set dividends
Same idiom error from D about "expect" is repeated

Hi,Ron,

I don't think D or E have the "wrong comparison" issue, as the ommited parts are both "conservative" in D and E.

Am I wrong? and are there any other problems in D and E?

Thanks in advance!

We need to have a to infinitive..option D and E are not idiomatic..
The correct idiom is expect to

Thanks and Regards,
Partha.

[mschwrtz]

Right.

Here are three ways you can use expect as a verb.

Expect immediately before a verb: We expect the new shoes tomorrow.

Expect that before a clause with its own subject: We expect that the new shoes will arrive tomorrow.

Expect before a noun and infinitive: We expect the new shoes to arrive tomorrow.

These all look slightly different when expected is used as a past participle. But that's the subject of a different question.

[SEPY]

Hi,

In first use of expect:where is the verb..typo?
(in ref to second last post)

Expect immediately before a verb: We expect the new shoes tomorrow.

[RonPurewal]

Hi,

In first use of expect:where is the verb..typo?
(in ref to second last post)

Expect immediately before a verb: We expect the new shoes tomorrow.

yeah, that was a little faux pas -- sorry about that, these things happen |:

here are the two separate examples:

"expect" directly before a verb (actually, an infinitive):
we do not expect to arrive on time.

"expect" directly before a noun:
we do not expect the package until sunday.

hope that helps

[nitin9003]

Here conservative modifies the noun Automobile Companies so it should be an adjective

so A and B options are eliminated

C clearly states an adverb conservative modifying the subject Automobile Companies

D and E do not have the correct idiom

it is stated that expect that x would be Y is the correct idiom.
can some one clarify it ?

[RonPurewal]

it is stated that expect that x would be Y is the correct idiom.
can some one clarify it ?

i'm sorry -- don't really understand your question.

it's true that "expect that X will/would VERB" is a correct idiomatic form. (the VERB doesn't have to be "to be", and there doesn't have to be an object "Y").

however, this particular idiomatic form is irrelevant in the problem at hand, because the non-underlined part of the problem contains "expect automakers...".
this form can't exist unless you have "that" directly after "expect", which is impossible with the existing underline.

[nitin9003]

Thanks a lot for the explanation

In my earlier post the strategies which i have used for eliminating the answer choices i.e. the modifier approach
Is it correct?

[RonPurewal]

Thanks a lot for the explanation

In my earlier post the strategies which i have used for eliminating the answer choices i.e. the modifier approach
Is it correct?

not really -- both of the following are valid:
to set dividends more conservatively
to be more conservative ... in setting dividends
these aren't functionally different.

the real issue with the first two choices lies in their lack of parallelism -- there is nothing properly parallel to "were" in choice (a), or to "have been" in choice (b).
see here for a fuller explanation:
http://www.beatthegmat.com/soar-t62473-15.html#280069

by contrast, the correct answer choice satisfies the parallelism requirements put forth in that post -- note that "to be" and "have been" are both forms of to be.

[saintjingjing]

B) to set dividends more conservatively than they have been

to set is the infinitive verb . there is no auxiliary verb.hence have been cannot be used

this is the right idea, yes.

let me have a go at it, in simpler language:
whenever you use a parallel structure with omitted/elided words, the EXACT omitted word(s) MUST be present, IN PARALLEL STRUCTURE, elsewhere in the sentence. this means in exactly the same form - no alterations, no tense changes, no nothing.

this kills choice (b). that choice ends with "...than they have been", which omits a participle: in other words, it's actually "...than they have been ______", where the ______ is clearly seen to be setting (dividends).
since the EXACT WORD setting doesn't appear anywhere else in this sentence, the sentence is incorrect.

by contrast, choice (c) is a-ok on this point. this choice also contains "...than they have been (__________)", where the parallel concept, "(more) conservative", actually appears elsewhere in the sentence.

Ron, you say"EXACT omitted word(s) MUST be present" but I do not understand

because there are many GMAT SC from Prep-1(old) like " a medicine prevents heart from xx , as well as a commonly useed drug. this is a correct senence, but "does" is omitted.
so I do not know why you say"EXACT omitted word(s) MUST be present"

[RonPurewal]

because there are many GMAT SC from Prep-1(old) like " a medicine prevents heart from xx , as well as a commonly useed drug. this is a correct senence, but "does" is omitted.
so I do not know why you say"EXACT omitted word(s) MUST be present"

please quote the actual problem(s) to which you are referring (i.e., prompt + answer choices). thank you.
the example here is incorrectly transcribed (it's not proper english), so please be more careful when you quote the cited problem.

thanks.

[saintjingjing]

B) to set dividends more conservatively than they have been

to set is the infinitive verb . there is no auxiliary verb.hence have been cannot be used

this is the right idea, yes.

let me have a go at it, in simpler language:
whenever you use a parallel structure with omitted/elided words, the EXACT omitted word(s) MUST be present, IN PARALLEL STRUCTURE, elsewhere in the sentence. this means in exactly the same form - no alterations, no tense changes, no nothing.

this kills choice (b). that choice ends with "...than they have been", which omits a participle: in other words, it's actually "...than they have been ______", where the ______ is clearly seen to be setting (dividends).
since the EXACT WORD setting doesn't appear anywhere else in this sentence, the sentence is incorrect.

by contrast, choice (c) is a-ok on this point. this choice also contains "...than they have been (__________)", where the parallel concept, "(more) conservative", actually appears elsewhere in the sentence.

first I see your explaination ,"whenever you use a parallel structure with omitted/elided words, the EXACT omitted word(s) MUST be present, IN PARALLEL STRUCTURE, elsewhere in the sentence" but I am still confused.
I quote another one,and try to use your explanation to choose

89( from G-verbal 10edition). A recent national study of the public schools shows that there are now one microcomputer for every thirty-two pupils, four times as many than there were four years ago.

(A) there are now one microcomputer for every thirty-two pupils, four times as many than there were
(B) there is now one microcomputer for every thirty-two pupils, four times as many than there were
B is the correct one, but how can I use your explanation----whenever you use a parallel structure with omitted/elided words, the EXACT omitted word(s) MUST be present, IN PARALLEL STRUCTURE, elsewhere in the sentence ------ to prove B is right, while E is worng in comparision, becasue both choices omit words and the omited part do not appear in other place.

(E) every thirty-two pupils now has one microcomputer, four times as many as


another thing:
I want to ask the auxiliary verb in comparison for example, in this question
this is my logic
A I think "set dividends" belongs to verb, but in A, were belongs to be, So it is not parallel. Delete
B "set dividends" belongs to verb, in B, "have been "belongs Verb( I think) because it is the perfect tense of verb,
C " be.. belongs to be, but have been belongs Verb because it is the perfect tense of verb,

I prefer to use auxiliary verb parallel to choose the correct one, do you think there are some problems in my logic

[RonPurewal]

89( from G-verbal 10edition). A recent national study of the public schools shows that there are now one microcomputer for every thirty-two pupils, four times as many than there were four years ago.

(A) there are now one microcomputer for every thirty-two pupils, four times as many than there were
(B) there is now one microcomputer for every thirty-two pupils, four times as many than there were
B is the correct one, but how can I use your explanation----whenever you use a parallel structure with omitted/elided words, the EXACT omitted word(s) MUST be present, IN PARALLEL STRUCTURE, elsewhere in the sentence ------ to prove B is right, while E is worng in comparision, becasue both choices omit words and the omited part do not appear in other place.

you may want to go back and double-check this; there's no way that (b) is correct the way you've written it here. ("X times as many than is idiomatically unacceptable; it must be "X times as many as".)

also, i don't know what "G-verbal 10th edition" is -- but, if it's the 10th edition of the official guide, then you are not allowed to post anything from it here. (be sure to check out the list of banned sources in the top post of the general verbal folder before you start posting examples.)

another thing:
I want to ask the auxiliary verb in comparison for example, in this question
this is my logic
A I think "set dividends" belongs to verb, but in A, were belongs to be, So it is not parallel. Delete
B "set dividends" belongs to verb, in B, "have been "belongs Verb( I think) because it is the perfect tense of verb,
C " be.. belongs to be, but have been belongs Verb because it is the perfect tense of verb,

I prefer to use auxiliary verb parallel to choose the correct one, do you think there are some problems in my logic

i'm sorry, i don't follow what you're asking here; perhaps you could rephrase your question.

[saintjingjing]

89( from G-verbal 10edition). A recent national study of the public schools shows that there are now one microcomputer for every thirty-two pupils, four times as many than there were four years ago.

(A) there are now one microcomputer for every thirty-two pupils, four times as many than there were
(B) there is now one microcomputer for every thirty-two pupils, four times as many than there were
B is the correct one, but how can I use your explanation----whenever you use a parallel structure with omitted/elided words, the EXACT omitted word(s) MUST be present, IN PARALLEL STRUCTURE, elsewhere in the sentence ------ to prove B is right, while E is worng in comparision, becasue both choices omit words and the omited part do not appear in other place.

you may want to go back and double-check this; there's no way that (b) is correct the way you've written it here. ("X times as many than is idiomatically unacceptable; it must be "X times as many as".)

also, i don't know what "G-verbal 10th edition" is -- but, if it's the 10th edition of the official guide, then you are not allowed to post anything from it here. (be sure to check out the list of banned sources in the top post of the general verbal folder before you start posting examples.)

Yes, Ron,I must be carefull. do not post banned sources. thanks

another thing:
I want to ask the auxiliary verb in comparison for example, in this question
this is my logic
A I think "set dividends" belongs to verb, but in A, were belongs to be, So it is not parallel. Delete
B "set dividends" belongs to verb, in B, "have been "belongs Verb( I think) because it is the perfect tense of verb,
C " be.. belongs to be, but have been belongs Verb because it is the perfect tense of verb,

I prefer to use auxiliary verb parallel to choose the correct one, do you think there are some problems in my logic

i'm sorry, i don't follow what you're asking here; perhaps you could rephrase your question.

okay,Sorry, I want to say
in A set dividends & they were are not parallel. reasons: set (verb) dividends , they were( be).
in B set dividends& they have been, I just do not understand why both them can not be parallel, reasons: set(verb) dividents, they have been ( a verb tense,but I think it still belong to verb ) so why people say the reason about incorrcet point in B is set dividends & they have been are not parallel

[RonPurewal]

why people say the reason about incorrcet point in B is set dividends & they have been are not parallel

that choice contains "they have been"

try filling in this blank:
they have been ______

this blank would, of course, require "setting", which is not present in the choice.

also, there is no other form of "to be" to which "have been" can be parallel.
therefore, the choice is wrong.

--

by contrast, notice that "have been" is parallel to "to be" in the correct choice.