I think the more we look at this question, the more nuances we see.
Guest started us off by looking at all the ways we can have three 2's and two of another number:
(1/10)^3(9/10)^2
Ron then added and said that there are 10 different arrangements the 2's can be placed in this ID number.
I'd like to add that we also need to take into account what those two digits are, specifically whether they repeat. For example, suppose we have 2, 2, 2, 3, and 4. One possible arrangement would be 22234. Another would be 22243. Those would be different IDs. However, if we have 2, 2, 2, 3, and 3, one possible arrangement would be 22233. Here, if I switched the threes (i.e. 22233) I would not get a different ID. Basically the product that we've been using with Ron and Guest does NOT take into account that last two digits could be the same.
I'd like to prose we find the probability this way:
Probability = P(three 2s + two different digits) + P (three 2s + two of same digit)
Let's take the first probability first: P(three 2s + two different digits). As Ron said, we need to first find ALL the different arrangements possible, then multiply that by the probability of one of those arrangements happening.
Possible arrangements: This is like making anagrams from the word AAAXY. In this case, it would be 5!/3!, or 20.
Probability of one arrangement: There's a 1/10 chance of selecting a two, 9/10 chance of selecting the next digit (since 2 cannot be used), and 8/10 chance of selecting the last digit (since it cannot be either of the last two digits). So it would be (1/10)(1/10)(1/10)(9/10)(8/10) = 72/100,000.
Therefore, the first probability is:
P(three 2s + two different digits) = (20)(72/100,000) = 1440/100,000
Let's look at the second probability: P(three 2s + two of same digit).
Possible arrangements: This is like making anagrams from the word AAAXX. In this case, it would be 5!/3!2!, or 10.
Probability of this arrangement: There's a 1/10 chance of selecting a two, 9/10 chance of selecting the next digit (since 2 cannot be used), and 1/10 chance of selecting the last digit (since it must be the same as the previous digit). So it would be (1/10)(1/10)(1/10)(9/10)(1/10) = 9/100,000.
Therefore, the second probability is:
P(three 2s + two of same digit) = (10)(9/100,000) = 90/100,000
The total probability would be the sum of the two probabilities:
1440/100,000 + 90/100,000 = 1530/100,000 = 154/10,000
As a decimal, this would be 0.0152, or 1.52%
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hema.jce said:
Hi Ron,
In the above method, we are assuming that having a zero in the first digit is valid ?
In our calculations, we are assuming that 0 can be the first digit in the ID. Since it's an ID, I'm not worrying about it looking like a real number. On a real GMAT question, it would be explicitly tell you whether having 0s at the front would count or not.
Hope this helps.