Another GMATPrep CR:
The quality of unrefined olive oil is not actually defined in terms of acidity, yet extensive tests have shown that the less free oleic acid an unrefined olive oil contains per liter, the higher its quality. The proportion of free oleic acid that an olive oil contains is an accurate measure of the oil’s acidity.
If the statements above are all true, which of the following conclusions is best supported by them?
A. When an olive oil is refined, the concentration of oleic acid in the oil is reduced.
B. The quality of an unrefined olive oil can be determined only by accurately measuring its acidity.
C. If an unrefined olive oil is intermediate in acidity between two other unrefined olive oils, it will also be intermediate between them in quality.
D. Free oleic acid is the only acid that unrefined olive oil contains.
E. People who judge the quality of unrefined olive oils actually judge those oils by their acidity, which the judges can taste.
OA: C
1) Can someone explain, Why is D wrong?
Stimulus says:-"The proportion of free oleic acid that an olive oil contains is an accurate measure of the oil’s acidity."
If proportion of free oleic acid = accurate measure of acidity, isn't it reasonable to assume that its the only acid that the olive oil contains?
D. Free oleic acid is the only acid that unrefined olive oil contains.
2) Also the stimulus says that "the less free oleic acid an unrefined olive oil contains per liter, the higher its quality."
This doesn't mean that its quality is only dependent on the quantity of oleic acid. There could be other impurities which could mitigate the contribution of less acidity.
As in C, it could be possible that the oil with intermediate acidity could contain very high amount of other impurities making it of least quality. Why do we assume that acidity is the only factor indicating quality?