tim Wrote:Tom, what part of Jamie's phrase "at least half" led you to conclude "just over half"? And what would possibly make you think that just because YOU only need a 38 on quant to get a 700 that this means Jamie's estimate of a 700 level problem translates universally to a 38?
As far as Jamie's classification system seeming "illogical", I'll point out that there is pretty much a one-to-one correspondence between raw scores and percentiles, and then between percentiles and 200-800 scores. How then can you conclude that one makes more sense than the other, other than to conclude that Jamie's method of putting things into a more intuitive scale makes more sense?
I won't bother picking apart the rest of your argument because I think I've made my point. My only request is that if you review our book on Amazon you include all the detail you've given above so people can put your comments into the proper perspective. And do yourself a favor - stop trying to pick a fight with Jamie, and use that time instead to work on your critical reasoning skills.
What are we in third grade now? The only thing missing is "Jamie's rubber, you're glue" I suspect you'll deactivate my account now, but at least I have a little time to respond:
As per YOU picking me apart: Let's see- Why I think that YOUR classification is illogical? The GMAT score, on the 200 -800 scale is a "non moving target". The skill level to reach a 600, 700, 800 is the same today as it was 10 years ago. This is true with ALL standardized tests, with the exception of when the test companies advertise that they are going to deliberately change their scoring curve. Reference the SAT about 15 years ago, when they "reentered" the test.
However, for whether reason, the PERCENTILE associated with each score is a MOVING TARGET. In other words, even though a 40 Quant represents the same skill level today as it did 10 years ago, the percentile can, and in the case of the GMAT does change significantly. Twenty years ago, a 700 was 97th percentile, today the same score (representative of the same skill level) falls in the ~90th percentile. The testing skills haven't changed, but the testing population has changed. As I've said before, there is no indication that the GMAT is making the test easier, therefore, the testing population is changing towards possessing a higher skill level. Therefore, using percentiles to represent the "absolute" skill level that a score represents is completely illogical. The &75th percentile mandated in the intro to MGMT Advanced Quant could be a 47 today and a 50 in 5 years and, if the test does not change, but the testing population, for whatever reason shifts to be less quantitative, that same 75th percentile could represent a 43 sub score.
On to my main point, using an overall score to represent the skill level of a sub score would only be valid if both of the subscores shared the same distribution curve (same average, median and standard deviation and range), AND if the final score shared the same shape distribution curve. Only then, can the scales be used interchangably, without modification. Further, since the GMAT subsections DO NOT share identical distribution curves, and the overall score is the result of the combination of each of these curves, and yields a curve that is distinct from either of the constituent curves. This lends to a scenario whereby there is a LOT of different combinations of sub scores that lead to the same "overall score". The quant component of the final distribution curve is independant of the verbal portion. It makes as much sense to refer to a sub score on the GMAT as a 200-800 scale as it does to refer to a GRE or SAT sub score on the "1600 scale".
A more simple analogy would be this: Suppose a physical chemistry class required solid mathematical skills as a prerequisite. Would the chemistry department do well to reference that a student have taken calculus 3 and an overall 3.0 GPA before taking physical chemistry? What if the student has a 3.5 overall GPA, but failed calc 1,2 and 3? Wouldn't it be more logical for the department to require that a student take calc 3 and have at least a 3.0 average in their math class. The overall GPA COULD be indicative of high math grades, but there are many cases of students with a high GPA and low math grades. To conflate the two would be nonsensical.
To conclude, classifying GMAT sub scores on the 200 - 800 scale is not a valid technique. There are several reasons for this. First, the sub score is a "moving target", and GMAT data has shown that this percentile moves quite significantly over the course of 5 years, the "validity" time frame given by the test writers. Secondly, since the subscore curves and the final distribution curve are not all identical, you can't just refer to one in terms of the other. For these reasons, classifying a sub score on a 200 - 800 score is invalid for GMAT usage.
I do want to add that I think that all of the MGMT material is, by a large gap, superior to anything else out there, I’m not desputing this, or arguing to the contrary. My only issue is with the 200 -800 classification of sub scores. I have laid out my argument as to why it is not a reasonable scoring system. It is what it is, and deactivating my account, removing the post and implicit ad homonym pejoratives can’t change it.
PS- to think that using a 200 - 800 scale is "more intuative" to anyone who is serious about the GMAT seems to me to be on the boarder of a canard. I mean, really, is a 0 -51 scale THAT hard to grasp, especially to your target audience, that possesses an IQ > 125 - 130?