I realized that I could have read this one a lot more efficiently by thinking about "decaffeinated coffee" as simply "~caffeine coffee." When I thought about it in this way, the question actually became a lot more simple for me to think through, strange but true. The question goes as follows...
3 cups of ~(caffeine coffee) = twice as likely to develop arthritis in comparison to 3 cups of (caffeine coffee).
→
~(caffeine coffee) = contains something that is both unique to ~(caffeine coffee) and damages connective tissue
Our goal is to find something that would be useful to determining the validity of this argument. This seems like a straightforward correlation/causation problem so I am thinking about things that people who drink ~(caffeine coffee) could do that would make them more prone to damaging connective tissue. That was the first thought anyway.
(A) The problem here is that we don't know what exercise has to do with arthritis. It is very hard not to apply what we think we know about the connection here and just go with only the information provided. If there had been something about exercise in the stimulus, then perhaps we could have inferred something. However, as (A) stands we just cannot jump to conclusions (though I did, quite wrongly).
(B) What does this have to do with arthritis? We have to show how ~(caffeine) contributes to a higher rate of arthritis.
(C) This is by far the most direct as it deals directly with the "degeneration of connective tissue," the cause of arthritis. I'll keep it for now and move on.
(D) We still need to know something about what kinds of coffee they drink and how that impacts arthritis. If this answer had said something like "whether most decaffeinated coffee drinkers do exercise X that has been shown to cause arthritis," then we would have a much better answer.
(E) I don't think this one should be written off as easily as it has been and here's why: this deals directly with the correlation/causation issue. if we know that people with arthritis are more/less likely to drink a certain type of coffee, then I think we can more classically address the correlation/causation issue. The problem with (E), however, is that it just talks about coffee in general. We want to know about a specific type of coffee, either (caffeine coffee) or ~(caffeine coffee).
Had (E) said, "whether people who have arthritis are less likely to drink decaf coffee," then I think you can make an argument that this would be correct. If we know that more people with arthritis drink decaf coffee, then perhaps the cause of the arthritis has nothing to do with the contents of the decaf coffee, perhaps it just so happens that people with arthritis like decaf coffee.
Now this would still prompt us to ask more questions about the causation of the arthritis - this modified (E) would still not validate/invalidate the idea that the decaf coffee caused the arthritis. However, I am just trying to say that (E) is trickier than I think we have given it credit for.
So here is a shorter version of what I was trying to say: the correct answer had to deal specifically with ONE type of coffee (regular or decaf) and it had to connect itself to the idea of ARTHRITIS. The rest of the answer choices are wrong because they fail to do one or both.
(C) is correct (to my dismay). It deals directly with arthritis AND decaf coffee, the two critical elements we needed.
Now in order to validate the argument's conclusion, we would have to show that both things occurred (
damages &
unique); to invalidate the conclusion, we could show that one thing failed to occur (~
damages or ~
unique).
If we know (C), then maybe we could say that caffeine coffee doesn't actually
damage. Instead it
slows the naturally occurring damage. Or, on the other hand, we could show that caffeine coffee doesn't slow anything and perhaps it would make sense that decaf damages.
Hope that helps. This question sucked - especially for #5 but I think the main thing to do is to not make unwarranted assumptions.