by logicalt870 Fri Jul 23, 2021 12:09 pm
Another problem with answer choice A for those interested:
We are told that most authoritarian rulers who undertake democratic reforms do so as a way of protecting their long term power, rather than as an intrinsic commitment to democracy. In other words, the shift usually occurs due to leaders feeling pressure to maintain power due to the shifting societal values and norms. Does this imply that many authoritarian rulers would institute democratic reforms without any pressure to do so? Not at all. It is certainly a possibility though. If there are 100 authoritarian rulers in the world, and 60 of them shift to a democracy due to pressure and 40 of them shift to a democracy for other reasons, you could certainly say that many of them would institute democratic reform without pressure to do so - remember, many could simply mean more than one, it doesn't need to be a majority. However, could this fact be inferred from the passage? No, because it isn't discussed anywhere. No evidence is given that many rulers would shift to a democracy without any pressure to do so. Therefore, although it is a possibility, it cannot be reasonably inferred from the passage that this event would occur.