Hi, this is an old test and felt like (C) and (D) would, in absence of the other, would each a viable answer especially in modern PTs. But want to hear Geeks thought.
P: If test drove, 80%+ chance of buying
IC: if test drive, will have 80%+ chance of buying
MC: If not prepared, should not test drive
Major flaw/gap in the argument
1. From P to IC, there is a implied causation; the past is projected to future
2. From IC to MC, unwarranted shift to a recommendation; there might be other reason you should test drive, despite that you are not prepared to buy
(C) seems to be getting at 1. by alluding reverse causation.
(D) while doesn't go after the major gap, possibly weakens the IC, as it suggests that it can be much lower than 80% chance, if you test drive just once.
I think for this question ,(C) is much clear weakener, as (D) goes after the ambiguous distinction of the meaning of a single term , test drive (once, twice...).
However, I just feel the modern test would be more careful in this regard or maybe I am simply being to generous with (D)...
Thx.