by sportsfan8491 Thu Jan 16, 2014 2:29 pm
I know that the last post in this thread is a little dated, but if I can revive it and provide my "two cents" on this question, hopefully my comments will be helpful. Experts, please feel free to correct anything that I've said, if you believe it is inaccurate.
Pardon the slight paraphrasing, however, in a nutshell, the argument says that there are some problems with the way that humans translate certain document (numerous translators, working on "long" documents, results in varied and incompatible writing styles). It then tells us that there are some benefits provided by computer programs for language translation (lacks human translator bias, finishes the job quicker, produces stylistically uniform results, gives pretty high accuracy rate). From these points, the argument concludes that we should go with the computer translation programs over human translators.
This seems like a pretty strong conclusion, as there might be considerations that the author has forgotten to address. I think this is where the question stem makes this a pretty tricky question, especially for the early stages of a section. I saw the question stem as asking me: "What has the author already accounted for in his argument?" The point that the author has already accounted for will be the correct answer. On the flip-side of this, the four incorrect answers will be points that the author hasn't necessarily considered or mentioned, but whose investigation would be worthwhile for determining the cogency of the author's argument, given the evidence he/she has provided.
(A) is wrong because the author hasn't accounted for this possibility and it is pertinent to address. Stylistic variety is one of the drawbacks that the author presents for the human translation method. However, the author fails to address whether the problem of varied human translation can be overcome. If it can be overcome, the argument is slightly weakened, so this would be an important factor to consider in evaluating the author's argument.
(B) is wrong because the author hasn't accounted for this possibility and it is pertinent to address. The author mentions a high accuracy rate for computer programs as one of the benefits that they can provide, but as I believe was mentioned in a previous post, we don't know whether this figure is even remotely justified here. If a numerical comparison of accuracy isn't relevant or justified, then the argument is slightly weakened because the numerical accuracy rate is one of the main pieces of evidence that the author provides in making his/her argument.
(C) is correct because the author has already accounted for this point (I put this in italics, in my points above, for this very reason). I think the tricky thing to watch out for is that we are given the plural form of "programs," so one might be tempted to think that different computer programs will be used and having this variety, in terms of programs, will produce varied writing styles. However, the author used the plural version of "programs" in the stimulus and said that they would produce the same results stylistically. So, the author would probably state that this isn't something that they forgot to address, as it is explicitly accounted for in their argument.
Another way I validated this answer is through an assumption that I made that since these are computer programs, the software is probably going to be programmed before the programs are put to use ("work"). I made this assumption based on something that I noticed in the stimulus: we are told that they will "'work' without intervention," but notice that we aren't told about the creation stage (the stage(s) before they are put to "work").
So, I took the word "work" to refer to the stage where the actual translation takes place, and not to the initial creation/set-up stage for the programs. This made answer choice (C) seem like a pointless inquiry to me, as I could see the author stating that even different programs could be written to contain the same code and, thus, produce stylistically uniform results when they were actually "working". If different programs are programmed to "work" exactly the same, how can they possibly produce a distinct writing style from one another? I know this might be a bit of a stretch, as I brought in some outside knowledge here, but this is the thought process that I used to choose this answer with a fairly high degree of confidence.
(D) is wrong because the author hasn't accounted for this possibility and it is pertinent to address. I think this could call into question the accuracy rate: a "yes" answer to this particular inquiry would somewhat undermine the connection between the evidence and conclusion.
(E) is wrong because the author hasn't accounted for this possibility and it is pertinent to address. We are told about a general accuracy rate, but what if this doesn't hold true for niche users of the software? What if it doesn't even hold true for general users? If computer programs just don't stack up to human translation for these users, it could be problematic for the argument. This seems like a relevant comparison that needs to be scrutinized.